Is a husband considered sinful if he abstains from conjugal relations with his wife, with her consent and their agreement not to have children, and there is no valid Sharia-compliant or health-related excuse preventing him from doing so?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
The command to procreate and multiply offspring is fulfilled by marrying a fertile woman. However, marital intimacy and the intention to procreate are not obligatory for the following reasons:
1. It is permissible to forgo marriage altogether.
2. It is permissible to marry a barren woman, or for a woman to accept a barren husband.
3. It is permissible not to procreate if the wife agrees to it through coitus interruptus (al-azl).
Therefore, if the wife waives her right to intimacy and procreation, she should not be compelled, and there is no sin in not procreating, even if it goes against what is better and more complete.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/111924
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 111924
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy