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The question

Is the husband sinful if he refuses to have conjugal relations with his wife and to have children with her, despite her desire for that?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

A husband's abstention from sexually gratifying his wife, despite his ability to do so, and his intention to prevent her from procreating, is impermissible. Procreation is a shared right between spouses. The husband must sexually gratify his wife according to her capacity and need, and this is the more sound of the two opinions. Ibn Taymiyyah emphasized that obligatory intercourse is among the most paramount rights a wife has over her husband.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
173563
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy