Is a man's saying "I have divorced my wife thrice" considered a new divorce after it became clear that two previous divorces (divorce by heart and divorce by innuendo) were not Islamically valid, and that only one divorce (during menstruation) was valid, this being out of his desire to take his wife back if the valid divorce was only one pronouncement?

If the husband's statement: "I have divorced my wife thrice" is merely an informing about a past divorce that he believes occurred, then no new divorce takes place with this statement. Rather, the divorce that he previously enacted upon her is what counts. Divorce does not occur by mere intention without utterance according to the majority of scholars. Divorcing during menstruation is forbidden, but it is valid according to most scholars, and this is the preponderant and fatwa-given opinion.