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Did a divorce occur due to the husband's oath to his wife by saying: "You are unlawful to me if you do not tell me the reason for your state," in order to know the reason for her sadness, and then she told him the reason, knowing that he did not intend divorce, and she suspects that the oath has taken effect?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

The prohibition in this case depends on the husband's intention. If he did not intend divorce or zihar, he must offer an expiation for breaking an oath, provided that the condition upon which the prohibition was made does not occur. His wife remains under his marital bond, and certainty is not removed by doubt. It is advisable to be cautious about making prohibitions or divorces contingent upon specific matters.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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