Does the wife become forbidden if the husband swears by divorce in the event that he does not commit to a specific action, and he did not intend divorce by that, and does divorce occur when the period specified for the oath passes?

If a husband breaks his oath to forbid his wife to himself because she did not consistently perform a certain action, the matter depends on his intention: if he intended divorce, it is a divorce; if he intended ẓihār, it is ẓihār; and if he intended an oath or did not intend anything, then an expiation for an oath (kaffārat yamīn) is incumbent upon him. If he did not intend separation or ẓihār, then one expiation for an oath is incumbent upon him. If he intended ẓihār, then an expiation for ẓihār is incumbent upon him. He is not required to offer an expiation for an oath for swearing by Allah, because the breaking of that oath has not occurred.