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The question

Is there an 'iddah for a woman who has been divorced after the marriage contract, but before consummation, if there was a khalwah (private meeting) but no intercourse occurred?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

The legitimate seclusion (al- al-shar'iyya) with the contracted wife, in which sexual intercourse is customarily possible, and during which the wife did not prevent her husband, is considered, according to the Hanafis, Malikis, and Hanbalis, as equivalent to consummation (ad-dukhūl) in making the full Mahr obligatory, even if they both agree that intercourse did not take place. Their proof is the consensus of the Companions that whoever locks a door or draws a curtain has made the Mahr obligatory and the ' (waiting period) incumbent, and because the delivery due from her side has been realized.

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Where this answer came from
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Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
41378
Imported
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Source text, unreviewed
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