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The question

Is it permissible for the buyer to ask the government to seize his father's money from the price of the house so that the wife does not get half of his share in the event of divorce, and only gets half of what the buyer pays?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

These laws that grant the wife half of the marital home, or other properties of her husband after his death, are contrary to Islamic . It is permissible to rid oneself of the injustice of this law as much as possible.

If the government's impoundment of what the father paid for the house proves his partnership to the extent of what he paid, then there is no harm. However, if the father gifted this money and did not intend partnership, then caution must be exercised to preserve the right of the owner and the heirs.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
181329
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy