Does it count as a divorce if the wife said to her husband, "I've had enough," and then fell silent, given that she possesses the authority to divorce?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
A divorce that is in the wife's hand by way of delegation does not occur unless she pronounces words that explicitly signify divorce, such as "I have divorced myself," or words of كناية (allusion) with the intention [of divorce], such as "I have chosen myself." As for the wife's statement, "I have had enough," divorce does not occur by it because it does not indicate divorce in any way, neither explicitly nor by allusion.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/114705
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 114705
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy