Is a woman divorced if she asks her husband to "give her a divorce" — meaning, to grant her the power to divorce herself — and the husband says to her, "I have given you a divorce," whereupon the woman says, "I am divorced"?

The husband's statement to his wife, "I have given you a divorce," after she requests it, bears two possible interpretations: The first is that he himself divorced her, in which case the divorce takes effect. The second is that he has empowered her to divorce herself, so if she explicitly declares herself divorced, the divorce takes effect. This is the view held by the Malikis and Hanafis.

As for the Hanbalis, they are of the opinion that the divorce does not take effect by the wife's statement, "I am divorced," after the husband's statement, "Your divorce is in your hand."

And according to the view that the divorce takes effect, the husband may reconcile with his wife before her iddah (waiting period) ends, provided that this divorce does not complete the three divorces.

It should be noted that it is not permissible for the wife to seek divorce without a legitimate legal excuse, due to the Prophet's (peace and blessings be upon him) saying: "Any woman who asks her husband for a divorce without any strong reason, the scent of Paradise will be forbidden to her."