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The question

Is a man's saying to his wife: "Your divorce from me" or "Your divorce is from me" considered an explicit divorce or an implicit one?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

Explicit divorce is the utterance that clearly indicates divorce, admitting no other interpretation than the dissolution of the marital bond, such as: "You are divorced." This does not require intention for the divorce to occur. However, a man's statement to his wife: "Indeed, it is your divorce from me" or "Your divorce from me" is not an explicit divorce. Rather, it is an allusive expression of divorce, as the statement could be understood as "Indeed, it is your divorce from me" that I will pronounce in the future, or "Your divorce from me" cannot happen. Divorce does not occur with an allusive expression of divorce unless accompanied by intention.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
127109
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy