Is a man's saying to his wife: "Your divorce from me" or "Your divorce is from me" considered an explicit divorce or an implicit one?

Explicit divorce is the utterance that clearly indicates divorce, admitting no other interpretation than the dissolution of the marital bond, such as: "You are divorced." This does not require intention for the divorce to occur. However, a man's statement to his wife: "Indeed, it is your divorce from me" or "Your divorce from me" is not an explicit divorce. Rather, it is an allusive expression of divorce, as the statement could be understood as "Indeed, it is your divorce from me" that I will pronounce in the future, or "Your divorce from me" cannot happen. Divorce does not occur with an allusive expression of divorce unless accompanied by intention.