Is a man's saying to his wife: "Divorce from you," or "Divorce for you," or "I divorced" (with an open ṭāʾ, an open lām, a silent qāf, and a silent tāʾ) considered an explicit statement of divorce or one of its allusions that requires knowledge of the intention?

The phrase "divorce is for you" is one of the allusions to divorce, and it does not effect a divorce unless accompanied by intention. Similarly, the phrase "divorce is from you" is an allusion to divorce, unless it is accompanied by the phrase "binding." The phrase "I have divorced" is also an allusion to divorce because the divorce is not attributed to the wife. These three formulations are allusions to divorce, and therefore, they do not effect a divorce unless accompanied by intention.