Does divorce take place by saying "I divorce you" or "I have divorced you," whether with or without intention, and are these among the explicit pronouncements of divorce?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
The phrases mentioned are allusive and not explicit in divorce, because they are in the present tense or have a softened lam (ل), whereas an explicit pronouncement, such as "You are divorced" or "She is divorced," requires no intention. It is blameworthy to be overly meticulous and ask about matters that are of no benefit. The Companions used to inquire about practical matters that benefited them, not about hypothetical situations or complex issues. The Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, warned against excessive questioning about matters that are of no benefit.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/149030
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 149030
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy