Does divorce take place by saying "I divorce you" or "I have divorced you," whether with or without intention, and are these among the explicit pronouncements of divorce?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
The phrases mentioned are allusive and not explicit in divorce, because they are in the present tense or have a softened lam (ل), whereas an explicit pronouncement, such as "You are divorced" or "She is divorced," requires no intention. It is blameworthy to be overly meticulous and ask about matters that are of no benefit. The Companions used to inquire about practical matters that benefited them, not about hypothetical situations or complex issues. The Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, warned against excessive questioning about matters that are of no benefit.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/149030
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 149030
- Imported
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- Source text, unreviewed
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