Does divorce take effect merely by a man telling someone that he has divorced his wife, or that he will divorce her, while a third revocable divorce still remains?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
A man's statement that he has divorced his wife can imply one of two things: either initiating a new divorce, which is unequivocally valid, or reporting a previous divorce, about the validity of which scholars differ. As for a man's statement that he will divorce his wife, it is merely a promise, and no divorce occurs until it is executed.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/176596
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 176596
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy