Does divorce occur with the statement: "It is forbidden for me if you speak with my brother's wife that you go to your parents' house," if the wife speaks with her brother-in-law's wife with the husband's permission after the oath, and is expiation (kaffarah) obligatory if divorce does not occur?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
Since you intended by your oath to prevent your wife from speaking to your brother's wife without your permission, and not absolutely; you have not broken your oath by her speaking to her with your permission, and no divorce occurs, nor are you required to pay expiation. This is because intention in an oath specifies the general and restricts the absolute. You should be cautious of swearing by '' or by divorce in the future, as the permissible oath is by Allah Almighty.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/166160
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 166160
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy