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The question

What is the ruling on someone who says "By divorce, I will not divorce," and then divorces his wife; and how many divorces are counted against him in this case?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If a man says, "By divorce, I will not divorce," and then divorces his wife, two divorces are incumbent upon him if the wife was consummated: the first by the immediate declaration of divorce, and the second for breaking his oath. As for an unconsummated wife, she is divorced once by the immediate declaration and becomes irrevocably separated. The preponderant view is that one divorce becomes incumbent upon breaking the oath if he said, "By divorce." The husband may take his wife back if he had not divorced her previously. The occurrence of divorce due to breaking an oath is the view of the majority of scholars, while Ibn Taymiyyah holds that only one divorce is incumbent.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
122752
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy