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The question

Is it permissible for a husband to marry with the intention of divorcing his wife so that she may marry another man after his death, and does his saying so affect the validity of the contract if nothing of this is mentioned therein, knowing that she is in a dilemma?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

A man's marriage with the intention of separating from his wife after a period, without stipulating this in the contract, is valid according to the majority of scholars. It is not a temporary marriage ( mut'ah). A temporary marriage is only that which occurs with the aforementioned condition. Al-Awza'i disagreed, deeming it a temporary marriage. Imam Malik said, "This is not from the manners of people."

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported

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Where this answer came from
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Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
134042
Imported
Translation status
Source text, unreviewed
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