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The question

What is the ruling on a Muslim's marriage contract if he intends to divorce his wife upon the completion of his work in the West, regardless of whether his fiancée is aware of this intention or not?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

A man's marriage with the intention of eventually leaving the woman can be divided into three categories:

First, if a time limit is stipulated in the contract, this is a temporary marriage (nikah mut'ah), which is invalid by scholarly consensus.

Second, if no such condition is stipulated in the contract, but the girl and her family are aware of his intention and agree to it. There is nothing wrong with this, as he might develop a liking for her and continue the marriage.

Third, if no such condition is stipulated in the contract, and the girl and her family are unaware. This is not appropriate due to the deception and fraud involved. However, most scholars hold that such a marriage is permissible and valid.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported

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Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
43800
Imported
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