Does the marriage contract remain valid if the desire to complete it vanishes a few hours after its conclusion, despite full consent before and during the contract? And does a change of desire after the contract affect its validity? What is meant by "justice" in His (Allah's) saying: "and two just witnesses"? And what is the ruling on the validity of the contract if one of the witnesses travels to countries where he is suspected of committing evil, even with other witnesses present and the two families attending? And to what extent is the contract valid if the dowry written in it differs from the amount actually paid, or if the form of the offer (Ijab) differs from the amount paid? And is her marriage considered a temporary marriage (Zawaaj al-Mut'ah) with the intention of divorce if her intention is to ascertain, after the contract, that there is no fosterage (radha'ah) between the two families, knowing that she sought Allah's guidance (istikharah) before the contract?
This feeling does not affect the validity of the marriage contract; the contract is sound. If the witness is mastūr al-adālah (meaning neither known for uprightness nor for transgression), then their testimony is valid according to the most correct opinions among scholars. The default is to have good presumptions about Muslims. The formula of offer and acceptance is correct, and it is not affected by not mentioning the mahr (dowry) or mentioning a mahr different from what was agreed upon. What is considered is the mahr agreed upon in the contract, and this is the view of the Shafi’i school. The contract is undoubtedly valid. The disagreement among scholars is regarding the amount of mahr obligatory upon the husband. As for the wife’s intention, it does not fall under the category of marriage with the intention of divorce, as divorce is in the husband's hand, not the wife's.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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