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Does divorce occur with the saying "How does a married woman surrender her rights?" if the intention behind it was not divorce, or if there was doubt about the exact words spoken?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

Divorce does not occur unless there is an intention to initiate it, either with an explicit phrase or an allusion combined with the intention. Accordingly, the aforementioned husband is not bound by a divorce if he did not intend to initiate divorce with the phrase "divorced," but rather intended to merely recount the sentence. As for the phrase "How does a married woman surrender her rights?", divorce absolutely does not occur with it, due to its lack of an explicit word or an allusion that indicates divorce. Divorce is not effective in this case, and the man is advised not to succumb to whispering (waswasah).

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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