Does the marriage of a woman who was previously married, when the husband's family became aware of this after the marriage contract, constitute disobedience to his parents, and is divorcing her the solution in light of their continuous rejection of the marriage?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
A man's marriage to you is not considered an act of disobedience to his mother if she has given him permission and is pleased with it. Her knowledge of your previous marriage after the fact holds no value. He is not obligated to divorce you to appease her, nor should he do so merely because you are a previously married woman. He should strive to please her and endear himself to her as much as possible. There is no sin upon him if the sole reason for her anger is his refusal to divorce you.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/89089
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- Original fatwa ID
- 89089
- Imported
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