How can the two noble verses be reconciled: "Indeed, over My servants there is no authority for you," and "And he had over them no authority except that We might make evident who believes in the Hereafter from whoever is thereof in doubt"?

The first verse (Indeed, My servants - no authority will you have over them, except for those who follow you) means that Satan has no authority over the hearts of God's believing servants, while the second verse (And he had over them no authority) indicates that Satan has no proof or argument against those whom he misleads; rather, he relies on adornment, temptation, and deception. There is no contradiction between the two verses; the first negates Satan's dominion over the hearts of the sincere, and the second negates his dominion through proof and argument over those whom he has led astray.