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The question

Why did Islam not abolish slavery, and why did Muslims at the time of the Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, force prisoners of war to become slaves and treat female captives as spoils of war? Is it permissible for men to treat them as "those whom their right hands possess" and have intercourse with them, as mentioned in Surat An-Nisa, and is this treatment still permissible?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

A Muslim must seek refuge in Allah from the whisperings of Satan when doubting Allah's wisdom and turn to people of knowledge. Slavery was widespread before Islam. Islam restricted its scope, confining it to legitimate jihad, and regulated the relationship between master and slave, enjoining kindness towards them and that they should not be burdened beyond their capacity. In return, it enjoined the slave to obey his master and promised him a double reward. Islam also encouraged manumission, making it an expiation for several sins, and allocated a portion of for freeing slaves, which indicates Islam's longing for freedom.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
35861
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy