Does one's conscience become clear by asking a mufti and a scholar about the non-occurrence of divorce? And is it permissible to adopt the view of those who say that divorce did not occur if more than one mufti has given such a fatwa, while only one shaykh has given a fatwa that it did occur?

The divorce of a person afflicted by obsessive-compulsive disorder (waswasah) does not take effect if it occurred under the influence of this waswasah. Such a person is permitted to adopt the easier opinion to avoid hardship. As long as he is afflicted by waswasah, he cannot be certain that he uttered the divorce in a state free from waswasah. Thus, the default remains that his divorce has not occurred. He should not frequently ask or delve into matters of divorce as long as he is afflicted by waswasah, because that strengthens the obsessions.