Does a divorce take effect when the husband says to his wife: "Do you want me to tell you now, 'You are divorced'"?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
Divorce occurs either by the husband's explicit utterance of it, or by an allusive phrase accompanied by the intention [to divorce]. The husband's utterance asking his wife: "Do you wish for me to pronounce your divorce at that time?" does not constitute explicit divorce nor an allusive phrase [with intent]. Therefore, the divorce has not occurred.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/110946
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 110946
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy