Is a contract rendered void if something permissible is bought or sold from or to someone whose wealth is entirely illicit, or is it valid with sin, and is the sale void if the buyer intends to use the permissible item for an illicit purpose?

Purchasing an item from a seller who acquired it with ill-gotten money is a matter of scholarly disagreement, with four different opinions: absolute impermissibility; permissibility as long as there is no favoritism shown to him; impermissibility of trading with him except for the specific items he purchased; and absolute permissibility.

As for selling an item to someone who will use it for unlawful purposes, this is not permissible. The majority of scholars hold that the sale is valid but sinful, while the Hanbalis consider such a sale invalid.