Is it necessary to have the intention of divorce for the occurrence of a revocable divorce [ṭalāq al-kināyah] using the present tense, considering that you stated that if the present is intended, divorce occurs, yet in another instance you considered it a promise and not a divorce?

Divorce occurs either by an explicit verbal declaration or by an implicit statement accompanied by the intention [to divorce]. The present tense form of the word "divorce" (as in, "I divorce you") is an implicit statement that does not effect a divorce without intention, but it does effect a divorce if the husband intends to bring it about at that moment.