How can we reconcile the emergence of the Dajjal when religion is at its peak with the advent of Imam Mahdi, and his emergence during "a flicker of religion and a decline of knowledge"? Does he emerge in a righteous or corrupt era? And what is the meaning of these two hadiths?

The Dajjal will emerge when Muslims possess strength to contend with the people of disbelief. This is indicated by the Hadith (definition) of Abu Hurayrah, which mentions the conquest of Constantinople after a battle with the Romans, whereupon a crier will announce the Dajjal's emergence. The Dajjal will also emerge after the conquest of Rome, following the Muslims' tahlil and takbir (utterance of 'La ilaha illa Allah' and 'Allahu Akbar'), and as they are dividing the spoils, a crier will come to them announcing the Dajjal's emergence.

It is narrated in the Hadith of Jabir ibn Abdullah that the Dajjal will emerge during a "flicker of religiosity and a decline of knowledge," meaning weakness and scarcity among its adherents. This Hadith has a weak chain of narration, but it is supported by the Hadith of Hudhayfah ibn Usayd, which states that the Dajjal will emerge when there is animosity among people, lightness in religious observance, and internal discord.

The existence of Muslim strength and conquests at the time of the Dajjal's emergence does not contradict the scarcity of knowledge and weakness of religious practice. This indicates the general state of the common people, while the conquests will be carried out by a remaining believing group fighting for the truth, led by a righteous Imam. The Arabs will be few at that time, but most of them will be in Jerusalem.