Does divorce occur if a man says to his wife, "Get lost," if he did not intend divorce when typing it, but then intended it when pressing the send button?

If a husband wrote this phrase to his wife and did not intend divorce by it, then no divorce has occurred, even if he intended divorce when pressing the send button. For a kinayah (allusive expression) - even if explicit - does not constitute a divorce unless he intends it with an intention concurrent with the utterance.