What is the religious ruling on a father's action of transferring ownership of all his properties and accounts to his wife without the knowledge of his sons and daughters, thereby disinheriting them, especially given that some of them are in need?
The ruling on what the father did by transferring ownership of his properties to his wife depends on his intention and his condition. If his intention was to disinherit the heirs, then he has violated Islamic law. However, if it was a complete gift made during his sound health, and the wife took possession of the properties before his death, then the gift is valid. But if this occurred during his death sickness, or if possession was not taken, then the gift is void, and the property remains for the heirs. The matter has become a judicial one, and the Sharia judge will rule on it in case of dispute.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/175473