What is the ruling of the Sharia on a father disinheriting his children from his first wife from the legal inheritance and bequeathing all his property to his son from his second wife?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
If the father decides to sell his property while he is legally incapacitated, or if he proceeds with the sale while mentally deranged, then the transaction is void. If the sale occurred while he was fully competent, but involved favoritism towards one of the children, it is also void, due to the obligation of equal treatment among children in gifts. However, if the sale occurred while he was fully competent and was free from favoritism, then it is a valid contract.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/55743
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 55743
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy