Does the husband's feeling of hatred towards his wife and his desire to leave her at her family's home constitute an intention to divorce if he uttered words that could imply divorce while angry, despite knowing that he does not desire divorce and regretting what he said?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
The husband in question was fully aware at the time of utterance, and he did not intend divorce. If the word used was a metaphor (such as "go to your family") and he did not intend divorce by it, then no divorce occurs, because his mere feeling of dislike for her does not constitute a divorce.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/100157
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 100157
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy