Does the husband's feeling of hatred towards his wife and his desire to leave her at her family's home constitute an intention to divorce if he uttered words that could imply divorce while angry, despite knowing that he does not desire divorce and regretting what he said?

The husband in question was fully aware at the time of utterance, and he did not intend divorce. If the word used was a metaphor (such as "go to your family") and he did not intend divorce by it, then no divorce occurs, because his mere feeling of dislike for her does not constitute a divorce.