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Does a divorce occur if a husband tells his wife over the phone, "I have divorced you from my life," if he intends to inform her of his anger and does not intend divorce?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

What your husband uttered is considered an explicit divorce that takes effect without the need for intention. An explicit divorce takes effect without intent, whether the husband intended divorce or merely wanted to inform you of his anger.

He may reconcile with you if this was the first or second divorce, before the expiration of the waiting period (iddah), which is purity from the third menstrual cycle, or three months for a woman who does not menstruate, or delivery of the baby for a pregnant woman.

If it was the third divorce, you are forbidden to him, and you do not become lawful for him until after you marry another husband out of genuine desire, he consummates the marriage with you, and then divorces you.

As for his false declaration of divorce, the majority of scholars hold that it takes effect judicially but not religiously. The Hanbalis, however, believe it takes effect both judicially and religiously. The first opinion is the more preponderant one.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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