Is it possible to add a subsequent condition to suspend the divorce pronounced by the husband? And did the divorce occur after the wife spoke to her friend in the past, knowing that the husband, by the word "occurred" [waqa'a], intended to refer to the first divorce and did not intend thereby for the divorce to take place immediately?

If a man made the divorce of his wife conditional upon her having a conversation with her friend in the past, and that conversation took place, the divorce has occurred according to the majority of scholars, whether he intended to threaten or to divorce. Ibn Taymiyyah disagreed with this. We issue fatwas according to the opinion of the majority. One must be careful not to be lenient with the pronouncements of divorce.