Is the wife considered divorced if the husband stipulated her divorce should she go anywhere without his permission, and then she went with her father to the market while on her way back home after visiting her family?

The breaking of an oath depends on your intention at the time of swearing it. If your intention to prevent your wife from going to the market with her father was included in your oath, then you have broken it. If it was not, then you have not broken it. If you have broken it and you had intended divorce, then the divorce takes effect. If it does not complete three divorces, you may reconcile with your wife during her waiting period ('iddah). Some scholars, like Ibn Taymiyyah, are of the view that if divorce was not intended by this oath, but rather you intended to prevent something or to emphasize a point, then divorce does not take effect upon breaking the oath, and you are obliged to offer an expiation for an oath.