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The question

Does a divorce take effect if the husband swears an oath of divorce that his wife will not sell to his brother in the shop, and then they reconcile and want things to go back to the way they were?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

According to the majority of jurists, an oath of divorce cannot be dissolved or revoked. If the wife does what her husband forbade her from, the divorce takes place, unless the husband had a specific intention. Such an intention would specify and restrict the oath. Similarly, the context of the oath (the underlying reason for the oath) specifies and restricts the oath. However, the disappearance of the reason here (the dispute) does not affect the oath according to some jurists who stipulate, for the context to be considered, that the one swearing the oath must not have had any involvement in it. Therefore, the disappearance of the dispute is not considered. If the wife sells in the shop to her brother, the divorce takes place, unless her husband had a specific intention. The Sharia guidelines for women's work must also be observed.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported

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Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
109572
Imported
Translation status
Source text, unreviewed
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