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The question

Is it permissible to separate from one's husband solely because he is Iranian?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

The marriage is valid if it was conducted with authorization from your guardian and two witnesses. The determining factor is the groom's state at the time of the contract. If he does not hold the disbelief-inducing beliefs of the Shia, then there is no harm in marrying him. Documenting the marriage is obligatory in this era due to the corruption of consciences and for the preservation of rights. If you have documented your marriage at the Islamic Center and with official American papers, this is sufficient. You should strive to document it in your home country. It is not permissible for a woman to seek divorce except for a justifiable excuse, based on the Prophet's (peace be upon him) saying: "Any woman who asks her husband for a divorce without any strong reason, the scent of Paradise will be forbidden to her." Your inability to register the marriage in your home country is not an excuse that permits divorce, as long as the marriage is documented in your current place of residence.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported

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Where this answer came from
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Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
5372
Imported
Translation status
Source text, unreviewed
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