Is the reason for the revelation of the Hijab to differentiate between free women and slave women, taking into consideration the story of Safiyyah (may Allah be pleased with her), and why did Umar beat slave women if they wore the Hijab, and it is said that their 'awrah is from the navel to the knee, and is it permissible to expose slave women to fitnah (temptation/strife)?

The hijab is a religious obligation, legislated to achieve chastity and purify souls and society from indecencies. The distinction between a free woman and an enslaved woman regarding the hijab is not the sole reason for its legislation. If the unveiling of an enslaved woman leads to temptation, then it becomes obligatory for her to wear the hijab. Anas's hadith about Umar's enslaved women means that their hair would strike their chests due to rapid movement, or that they were elderly, and it does not mean that their breasts were uncovered. The verse from Al-Ahzab (33:59), "they should draw over themselves some of their outer garments," indicates that the hijab is for recognition of chastity and to ward off harm. The distinction between a free woman and an enslaved woman regarding the hijab is not a matter of consensus; rather, there is a well-established difference of opinion, and some scholars hold that there is no difference between them regarding the hijab. Safiyya's hadith does not contradict this, as the specific hijab for the Prophet's wives was an additional measure that concealed their persons from people.