What is the preponderant opinion regarding the extent of the slave woman's awrah, and is it from the navel to the knee for all people, even in the street? What is its evidence? Is it narrated from the Salaf that their slave women walked unveiled or veiled like free women? What is the directive for permitting her unveiling, contrary to the free woman, despite the presence of the reason for veiling? Are they not all women in the end?

The majority of scholars hold that the hijab (veil) is obligatory for free women but not for slave women (ima’), because slave women have frequent needs and move around a lot, and imposing the hijab on them would entail extreme hardship. Since the hijab was specific to free women and not slave women during the time of the Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, Umar ibn al-Khattab, may Allah be pleased with him, would, upon seeing a veiled slave woman, strike her and say, "Are you imitating free women?"

However, Abu Muhammad ibn Hazm, followed by some contemporary scholars like Al-Albani, differed, holding that the awrah (intimate parts that must be covered) of a slave woman is the same as that of a free woman.

Nevertheless, this view is restricted to situations where fitna (temptation/discord) is not feared. Otherwise, if fitna is feared, the slave woman must cover herself. This is what was preferred by العلامة (the great scholar) Ibn al-Qayyim and clarified by العلامة Al-Uthaymeen, who stated that the underlying reason for hijab is the fear of fitna, and there is no difference in this regard between a free woman and a slave woman. They added that slave women in our time—especially the beautiful ones among them—must cover themselves to prevent fitna.