Does the divorce of a Muslim ignorant of the rulings and wordings of divorce take effect, and is this connected to the noble verse: "Your Lord has decreed upon Himself mercy. Indeed, any of you who does evil in ignorance and then repents after that and corrects himself - then indeed, He is Forgiving and Merciful"?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
If a person is ignorant of the pronouncements of divorce and their meaning, then nothing is incumbent upon him, because he did not intend to effect the divorce, so he is not choosing it. However, if he knows the meaning of divorce but is ignorant of the details of its rulings and pronouncements, then his divorce is valid, and ignorance is not considered an excuse for him. As for the verse: (Your Lord has decreed upon Himself mercy: that whoever of you does evil in ignorance then repents after that and corrects himself - indeed, He is Forgiving and Merciful), it has no relation to the ruling on divorce.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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