Does a divorce take effect if a person utters it without understanding its meaning, yet intending to utter the words, and then realizes after speaking that it means divorce, taking into consideration that had he known beforehand, he would not have uttered it, and his situation is similar to that of a non-Arab who does not understand the meaning of divorce, or an Arab who adds the word "for the Sunnah" or "for Bid'ah" without knowing their meaning, and also given that he is taking medications that may affect concentration?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
If someone pronounces divorce without understanding its meaning, the divorce does not take effect, because they did not intend its meaning. Similarly, divorce from a person suffering from obsessive-compulsive disorder () does not take effect unless they are certain they uttered the divorce, being fully aware and of their own free will. If doubt arises, it should be ignored.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/154702
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 154702
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy