What is the ruling on attributing a child to his father if the father had uttered a clear divorce pronouncement of which he was unaware at the time, and then begot the child thereafter, and is it obligatory for him to change the child's lineage if he had already attributed him to himself?
Divorce does not occur unless the person utters an explicit phrase and attributes it to the wife, such as saying: "My wife is divorced," or utters an ambiguous phrase intending divorce thereby. Neither the explicit nor the ambiguous phrase, if not attributed to the wife, effects a divorce. The child is attributed to his father and inherits from him. One must avoid thinking about this to prevent obsessive thoughts.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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