Is a wife considered divorced if she tells her husband "I am divorced" based on information that later turns out to be incorrect, given that she said it while being certain of its truthfulness at the time she said it?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
Divorce is in the hands of the husband, not the wife. Therefore, a woman's divorce of herself does not take effect, even if her deception of her husband becomes apparent, unless she has been delegated the power to divorce herself.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/98676
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 98676
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy