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The question

What are the consequences for a husband who swore to abstain from conjugal relations with his wife, saying: "It is forbidden for me to have intercourse with you unless you ask me to," then had intercourse with her ten days later without her asking him to, and she is now pregnant?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If you had intercourse with your wife before she asked you to, and you broke your oath, then your intention behind the prohibition is considered: If you intended divorce, it is a divorce. If you intended ẓihār, it is ẓihār. If you intended ʾīlāʾ, it is ʾīlāʾ. If you intended an oath, then an expiation for an oath is binding upon you. If you did not intend anything, then an expiation for an oath is also binding upon you. And you must advise your wife, as she is sinful for inciting the prohibition of her intercourse, and remind her of the husband's rights.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
99156
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy