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The question

Is anything incurred — such as an expiation for breaking an oath — upon a wife who swore an oath not to allow her husband to have intercourse with her for a month, and then he had intercourse with her the following day?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

It is obligatory for the wife to obey her husband in what is right and to enable him to enjoy her, so whoever refuses will be cursed by the angels until morning. The husband must help his wife obey him, and he has rights toward her just as she has rights toward him. A wife who has sworn not to approach her husband must offer an expiation for her oath: feeding ten poor persons or clothing them, or freeing a slave. If she is unable to do so, then fasting for three days.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
41968
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy