Is divorce effected by the word "I have repudiated her" if it is uttered plainly and without intention, and is it treated like explicit divorce pronouncements that effect divorce without intention? And in the event that divorce occurs, can the wife be taken back with the words "I have taken so-and-so back to my marriage," or is something else required, knowing that khulʿ (divorce at the instance of the wife, usually for compensation) involves compensation and that the speaker did not intend khulʿ?

If the husband says to his wife, "I have divorced you [khala‘tuha]," intending her, then if he intended divorce by it, the divorce is binding. If he did not intend divorce, nothing occurs; because this word is an allusive (kinayah) term for divorce and not an explicit (sarih) one. If the husband did not intend divorce, it does not occur. If the divorce occurred and it was the first or second, the husband may take his wife back before the expiry of her 'iddah (waiting period). The return (raj'ah) is valid with an explicit word or an allusive word accompanied by intention.