Does a divorce take place by saying "divorced" without intention or purpose while angry?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
If the husband utters the word "taliq" (divorced) without attributing it to his wife, and he did not intend divorce by it, then no divorce occurs. This is because this word is a kinayah (allusion) that requires intention for divorce to take place. This ruling is considered to be between the husband and his Lord. If he did not intend divorce, or if he intended something else by the allusion, then he is to be believed in what is between him and Allah. If he is truthful, then nothing befalls him.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/148130
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 148130
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy