Is a divorce effective when one says "divorced" to oneself aloud with the intention of stopping a problem with one's wife, without intending to enact a divorce or direct the word to her, and before consummation?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
If you utter the word "Taliq" (divorced) without attributing it to your wife, and you do not intend by it to divorce her, then no divorce occurs. However, if you do intend divorce by it, then it occurs; because this word is an implicit expression (kinayah) which requires intention for divorce to take place through it.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/150186
Where this answer came from
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 150186
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy