Does divorce take effect if a man repeats the word "taliq" (divorced) to himself or says it to himself without his wife or anyone else hearing it, given that he suffers from obsessive thoughts about divorce, does not intend divorce, and is ignorant of the rulings regarding uttering it?

For a divorce to be effective, it is not a condition that the wife be confronted with it, or that she hear it, or that anyone else hear the pronouncement of the divorce. Nor is the husband's ignorance of the ruling on uttering divorce of any consequence. If the husband pronounces a clear divorce, knowing its meaning, intending its utterance, being aware, not overcome by his intellect, choosing willingly, and not being coerced, then his divorce is effective. However, if he pronounces divorce while overcome by his intellect due to obsessive whispering, his divorce is not effective.