Is my mother's state of ihram valid, given that she intended 'Umrah and departed from Egypt for this purpose, despite her not knowing the meaning or concept of ihram? Should she perform 'Umrah, or what is the solution?

Assuming ihram (definition) for 'Umrah (definition) is the intention to enter into the rites of 'Umrah, not merely the intention to perform 'Umrah from one's home. So, if the mother was alerted to enter into the acts of 'Umrah when passing by the miqat (definition), and she then intended to enter into the rites, she has thereby entered into ihram, and her 'Umrah is valid.