Does the divorce of a 64-year-old man count, given that he pronounced the third divorce upon his wife and is afflicted with premature senility that caused him to utter delirious speech?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
If a man pronounces a divorce while in a病ed state where he does not comprehend what he is saying, and this is medically and practically established, then his divorce is considered void. However, if he pronounces a divorce while fully sound in mind and comprehension, then the divorce is effective. It is necessary to refer to the courts to ascertain the man's true condition and issue a ruling accordingly.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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- 56428
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